Well, not really but it could have helped where a man in eastern India uttered the Urdu word for divorce [“Talaq”] three times in his sleep thereby accidentally divorcing his wife according to the religious leaders in West Bengal state as reported in this Associated Press article.
Does this give “no fault divorce” new meaning? Not so fast!
In an earlier post I noted that the High Court in Kerala has said that under Muslim law, mediation should be undertaken before using the Talaq option in divorce. Hmmm! What if the man first had a dream about family mediation with his wife and then, in the same dream, gave “Talaq?” Would the “divorce” then be valid? What do you think [or am I just ‘dreaming’ – sorry, I couldn’t resist]?
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